I'm sorry to interrupt, but I have limited time and I have a few more questions for you today.
You did state that had medical assistance in dying for a mental disorder as a sole underlying medical condition been available, you would have applied for it. Can you say with certainty, given the guardrails that exist in our Criminal Code, that...? You need those two independent medical practitioners.
It seems to me it's a hypothetical here. You're saying with certainty that it would have been granted, but we can't truly know that for sure, can we?