Sir, with respect, that doesn't quite answer the question, because in fact it clearly says that the prohibition order doesn't prevent a person from maintaining weapons in the performance of duty. The default position is that he's allowed to do so unless for some reason the court martial decides otherwise.
I wonder if you could provide a rationale as to why the default position is that in a circumstance where this occurs, it doesn't prevent an individual from doing that. By the way, there does appear to be some change here, particularly in section 3.