I hear a lot of what's called a self-fulfilling argument here, in that you're suggesting there are circumstances where you could do it. I hear what Mr. Norlock is saying. My question is this. Where it's decided that a person is a danger—as the bill says here, in the interests of safety of the offender or another person—enough to have the prohibition order, how could it be safe for the public, in the case of the police officer, for the same person to have a gun or a weapon when he's on duty? I would like to have an example of where that might actually make sense.
I hear what you're saying about tools of the trade, etc. It may be a case of an individual who got into trouble and it had nothing to do with his work or job; you want to isolate it from that, and you can satisfy somebody.... I don't know. It just seems to me that the ordinary person who is not a police officer, who is not a soldier, would have a lot of difficulty understanding how it is that a person who is a danger to himself or some other person and who requires a prohibition order should be competent and safe to have a weapon—and that's the default position: that they would continue to have a weapon in the course of their duties. I haven't had anybody explain that to me yet.