I'm trying to understand where Mr. Bevington is coming from. If he's making the change in English, my first question is what his change is going to be in French. If I understand Ms. MacKenzie correctly, it's identical now in English and French as far as the meaning “to convey” is concerned. If we're going to make a change in the meaning in English, we're going to have to make a change in the meaning in French.
So my first question to Mr. Bevington is, what change in meaning does he want to make in French? What's his rewording in French? If he's changing it in English, he has to change the meaning in French.
My second question is, has he consulted with a lawyer? Does he have a legal opinion to base what he's pushing for on? Without a legal opinion on this from some lawyer, this is just cosmetic, and I'm not sure quite what the point is at that point.