Do they put the full $650 million into this account, then deplete it to where it either runs out or there's money left over, and then return it? I'm just trying to understand. If we're talking about expediency in this act, the government is going to be cutting the cheques. Is it imagined that the operator simply forks over $650 million or $100 million? I don't see where that's worked out in the act, where the money actually sits and where it comes from.
