I would bow to your expertise as a parliamentarian. It would seem to me that the Governor in Council is not as accountable to Parliament as parliamentarians are to themselves. If a bill were to pass the House where a position was created that didn't have the proviso of the need to be bilingual, is that more or less accountable than if it's done by an order in council? I don't know that. It's a technical question.
On March 26th, 2013. See this statement in context.