Excuse me, but I am trying to follow this. The code for MPs clearly states that they must not favour their own family members. I missed that part. I am sorry, but I had to leave the room to deal with another matter. This also applies to any other person... I do not understand, because when you solve someone's problem, you do them a favour. Is this the ambiguous part?
Personally, I write a dozen letters to ministers on behalf of people in my riding on a daily basis. If I solve a problem, I am exercizing my influence in favour of someone from my riding. It would be different if someone paid me for doing them a favour. However, when a citizen comes to my office and tells me that he needs a visa or some other thing and I appeal to the minister, because this is what an MP must do, and if I am successful, it means that I have done a favour for this person. I am just giving this as an example. This is how it could be interpreted. For example, someone could come to my office to ask me to sign the passport application that he will send to Ottawa. If I do my job as an MP and if this advances some individual's interest...