Can I interrupt you for two seconds?
Would you be able to provide us with what the added liability would be if the funded discount rate was similar to the unfunded?
The reason I ask that is I remember reading a report in which the Treasury Board justified using a higher discount rate because it had a higher rate of return. It has a higher rate of return because it's investing in higher-risk assets, and it can invest in higher-risk equities and assets because the taxpayers will cover any losses. It's a very circular logic, because the taxpayers will cover any losses on our investments.
I'm wondering, if we went back, as C.D. Howe and others have said, to using real returns or bonds like the unfunded, what the outstanding liability would be.
Obviously, you can get back to us, because I don't want an answer right now.