I know this has come up before, and please excuse me if it's somewhere in the written material, but I'm wondering if Mr. Ménard, and perhaps the researchers could explain how this scenario would work if one adult presented himself or herself with a young child, or if a couple appeared with a young child. Would someone have to establish that these people--let's say there were two of them--were the parents and that they both consented? They could consent verbally, I guess, at that point.
Or if you had a person who was a single parent, let's say, it could be established that they were one of the parents. In the case of, for example, the mother travelling with the child and the father being somewhere else, with the parents being married and both having given consent, presumably then you're saying this motion would say that person leaving the country would have to have a letter from the other spouse agreeing that they could travel with....
I understand the problem that Mr. Ménard is touching on, but I'm just wondering about the practicalities of it.