Earlier, during a question from Ms. Priddy, she indicated that the U.K. House of Lords had not thought very highly of the special advocate provisions and that it had given a considerable number of reservations. Yet upon questioning I don't know if it was Mr. Therrien or Mr. Dunbar who said that the House of Lords recently said the current legislation in Great Britain was within accordance with U.K. law as well as European jurisprudence. Am I correct in saying that?
On November 27th, 2007. See this statement in context.