I guess the problem I'm having is that “modus operandi” appears in the Oxford English Dictionary as part of the English vernacular. There are many such words. Mens rea is another example that was referenced that's actually become part of the English language now. Our language is based on Latin. Our word origins are Anglo in some cases, Saxon in others, and German or French in others, and we also have Japanese words. All of our words originate from other languages. This is not a virgin language, and after a period of time, the use of a word in our vernacular makes it part of our language.
My definition of when a word becomes part of our vernacular is when it appears in the Oxford English Dictionary, which is something of a bible of our language. So I'm having a little bit of difficulty understanding why we can't use certain words, because then I'm led to wonder what words, with what origins, we are not allowed to use. If we can't use words with a Latin origin, even if they have a contemporary meaning and are in an English dictionary, then what are the other expressions we are not allowed to use? And is there a dictionary of terms I can draw from that I'm allowed to use, and other terms that I'm not?
I'm confused by this, because the term mens rea, as an example, has a very specific meaning. If I say that a person had insufficient mens rea to comprehend the crime committed, it has a very particular context—though I suppose there's another way of articulating that too.
So I'm not understanding this. I think it puts us at a great disadvantage, and perhaps the best way to do it is to ask the officials to take some time to think about other wording, and also to answer the question generally of where we can draw our language from.