The point underlying one of my first questions was whether the offender can then say, look, this is my money legally—I don't want to use the word constitutionally—so if you want to get your hands on it to distribute to these creditors, you have to go through the court rather than just automatically disbursing it to the creditors. Is it possible that somebody would raise this issue?
On May 8th, 2012. See this statement in context.