Okay.
Mr. Chan, I might have asked you this question the last time you were here, but we all had to flee rather quickly, so I'll apologize if we have to rehash some of this stuff.
Monsieur Picard asked a similar question about how it all works security-wise and everything. I just want to understand the efficacy for a train. It's very obvious for flights. It has been well explained that it changes the number of destinations you can go to, but for a train going from Montreal to New York on Amtrak let's say, or, for you, from Vancouver to Seattle, the destination remains the same. Where does the efficiency of having pre-clearance for travel by rail come from?