Thanks very much. I don't have a lot of time.
There's some concern about presenting proof, and you've addressed that by allowing declarations. I think there's some concern that it mixes up administrative procedures with court procedures, and people start talking about the onus of proof.
I just want to test what I think I heard from you. In the absence of documents or evidence that proves non-consent, a statement is anticipated to be sufficient evidence that it was consensual. Would that represent something like you were saying?