My understanding is that hers dealt with mandatory minimums.
My question is to you, Mr. Nicholson. Do you think the recent ruling in Manitoba--which you I'm sure know well--is consistent with the manner in which such jurisprudence has evolved? I know, as you do, that since 1992 there has been no such thing as implied consent in Canadian law. Do you think the ruling we had, and that clearly shocked the women of Manitoba and women across the country, is consistent with the government's message on violence against women?