You use Quebec as the example, and the argument you made was that it enhances the participation of women in the workforce in Quebec. The rest of Canada doesn't have universal child care. So, presumably there should be some difference in the participation rate of women who work in Quebec and women who work in the rest of Canada. So, I'm curious, is that true? Or, is that not true? Is there some statistical proof of that?
On May 14th, 2014. See this statement in context.