Yes. Well, I think we do have a general law for the commercial context, as we're talking about airlines giving information. This is PIPEDA. What we are looking at here is an exception to PIPEDA for clarity for the business world, which really doesn't know how to interpret some sections, particularly in the case of overflying rather than landing in another country. We do have that law. It's generally recognized as a basically appropriate law, and what we're looking at here is a specific exception where there would be no consent. The airlines would not have to get consent.
On November 18th, 2010. See this statement in context.