It accords shippers a unilateral right that it doesn't give in the negotiating process with the rail company. I'm simply asking whether that is or is not an improvement over the status quo. It does compel, at least to some reasonable degree, that parties must negotiate fairly with respect to a service-level agreement or there will be some consequence.
You can disagree with whether you think it will succeed in terms of the outcome that it will force in the process. I'm simply asking whether that's an improvement over the status quo.
That was only the first opening question. That's why we're having difficulty understanding—