Where I was going for the first part of the question was, would we potentially be looking at significant cost to the government to maintain a surplus vessel in seaworthy condition? If there was no requirement for the government to keep a vessel in seaworthy condition and the government knew it was not seaworthy when it sold it, could it then not, through the terms of sale, ensure that it was not going to be sold as though it were seaworthy? Is that clear?
On February 26th, 2018. See this statement in context.