If I understand the intent of the proposed amendment correctly, it's to prevent a social harm, which is important to me, but I'm not sure it captures it. The problem that I'm thinking of is one where the government doesn't sell a dilapidated vessel, but sells a vessel that's in decent condition, and it subsequently becomes dilapidated, potentially because the new owners didn't disclose the purpose for buying it. Maybe they had great plans, and the bottom fell out of the market they had plans for, I'm not sure.
When I look at the act we have before us, this would apply equally, I understand, to the government and private owners. Perhaps I'll get some clarity on that, because the harm is already protected against as the government couldn't allow its own vessel to become dilapidated. I don't know that this would prevent the harm in the sale of a good vessel, in working condition, that would subsequently become dilapidated. Could you comment as to whether the harm I'm trying to describe, perhaps inarticulately, is captured by the proposed amendment?