Leaving aside the arrogance, because in order to say people are keen, one really has to be cut off from reality.
Leaving aside the fine talk, I have a very simple question. We will use the example of a person from Papineau-Saint-Michel,
who has been laid off after 50 weeks of work, who has worked eight hours a week for a total of 400 hours in the year. Working for 52 weeks at six dollars an hour, this person has earned $2,400. I am asking him this question to make sure I am right, if the hon. member for Papineau-Saint-Michel understands properly.
Is it not true that this person will pay premiums for each of the 400 hours worked, whereas none were paid before? Is it not true that this person will receive no benefits after being laid off, for having worked only 400 hours instead of the requisite 910? Is it not true that the premiums paid will not be reimbursed?