Let me go through the whole thing. My understanding is that this is what happened.
The hon. member asked “I would like to seek the unanimous consent to move this motion”. At that point I asked the House “does the hon. member have unanimous consent to put the motion?” At that point I heard no one dissenting. Therefore the hon. member had the right to put the motion.
When the hon. member put the motion I again sought unanimous consent. There was not unanimous consent at that time. If anyone dissents then that dies right there.
The hon. member does bring up an interesting point that this is a motion. At that point, after I had asked whether there was unanimous consent and there was a “no”, my clerk informs me, and I agree with the rules, I should have put this to a voice vote.
Because I did not do that, it is my fault. I, as the Speaker, made this error. What I am going to do now, with the permission of the House, is do it again. I invite hon. members to take it from there. I will deal with this the way it should have been dealt with.
The hon. member has sought unanimous consent to put the motion. Is that correct?