Thank you.
In clause 2, under the “Purpose and Application” section of the bill on page 8, it reads:
For greater certainty, this Act does not apply in respect of personal information that has been anonymized.
I think the debate we're having right now is one.... We heard from witnesses like Ms. Scassa, who talked about the almost impossibility of de-identifying data based on the best practices that exist out there, and how we can never be 100% sure. That was very clear. She outlined that the department seems to be very much on the side of some of those big corporations that want as much leeway as possible in the design of anonymization and de-identification to protect their corporate interests and business interests. That's fine. That's their objective, and I acknowledge that, regardless of whether or not I agree with it.
However, if we're making a comparison with the Quebec law, does the Quebec law exempt anonymized data from the scope and application of the bill?
More specifically, is there greater certainty in Quebec's law that would not apply in respect of personal information that has been anonymized? Is there something in Quebec's legislation like what we have on page 8?