It's more of a question than a comment, Mr. Chair. It's a question to Mr. Davies.
I'm unclear as to what possible objective standard exists to determine these equivalencies. Our Criminal Code uses specific language, for example, sexual assault. Other jurisdictions, most notably the United States of America, use specific language, like rape. I don't know that there is any objective standard as to how you determine those equivalencies. How are you going to determine these equivalencies if you don't put it in the discretion of an attorney general?