There's a comment here about “deemed fit to stand trial”, in terms of going through the system to make that determination. Correct me if I'm wrong—I'm not familiar with the system—but that has nothing to do with whether somebody was actually fit at the time they committed the crime. Is that correct?
So they could have not been fit at the time they committed the crime, yet fit to stand trial after the fact, and they wouldn't be part of this.