I just want to make sure I understand the meaning of this, as we intend--that is, it's the public office holder personally acting that causes it to be a conflict, but it doesn't foreclose on someone else soliciting funds on his or her behalf. Is that correct? It's the personal aspect of it that is the conflict.
Evidence of meeting #20 for Bill C-2 (39th Parliament, 1st Session) in the 39th Parliament, 1st session. (The original version is on Parliament’s site, as are the minutes.) The winning word was amendment.