Earlier, you said something that I feel is very important. You said that, if you are lobbying to get a grant, it's covered by the act, but if you are lobbying for a direct contract, it is not covered by the act.
Do you think that is logical, given that, when all is said and done, public money, the taxpayers' money, will be spent?
If I am lobbying the federal government for a sole source contract, I am not required to comply with the Lobbying Act and declare it. Does that seem logical to you?