Yes. I'm talking, for example, about a consultant lobbying firm that has several clients and is lobbying the government. They are full-time lobbyists, as you say. That's all they do, but they do it for various clients. Versus an in-house lobbyist who works for a company and does the same kind of lobbying but has only one client, their employer.
Should we distinguish between the two situations? Should the obligations be the same for both?