There is a related debate to the discussion we just had regarding the possibility of considering the current agreement with Quebec to be part of this legislative framework. However, there is no actual reference to the province of Quebec in the bill, in either the schedules or the body of the text.
Supposing this bill were to pass in its current form, with the differences that Ms. Levonian has just pointed out—in other words that, in Quebec, the responsible authority is not the federal government and that the Quebec sales tax, or QST, is added to the GST, and so on. If this bill were to pass, would it be possible for compensation to be paid and for recognition of the current agreement with Quebec as constituting harmonization pursuant to this legislation? Is it theoretically possible that this could be recognized?