If I may, I would just correct a misperception that appears to have arisen when the previous honourable member raised a question. I think he was attributing the comment to my colleague, Mr. McAuley, but it was actually I who said that there wasn't any international calculation of the international tax gap. There are attempts to calculate the tax gap domestically, and indeed in the U.K. they do have an estimate of this. My numbers are $42 billion, or about 8% of the theoretical tax base. But on the international tax gap, there isn't, to our knowledge, or at least to the best of my personal knowledge, any calculation of that amount.
Thank you.