Proposed subsection 206.7(3), under “Exception”, says:
An employee is not entitled to a leave of absence with respect to any act of family violence if the employee is charged with an offence related to that act or if it is probable, considering the circumstances, that the employee committed that act.
I understand the purpose of this. In cases of domestic violence, a person can say that they need time off because they hit their spouse. I understand that, but what about in the cases where it's not clear cut, where it's not perfectly obvious? Doesn't this put the supervisor, the employer, in an odd position in having to decide before the court decides if the person is guilty, not guilty, or guilty enough to not be able to take advantage of this leave section?