Okay. I'll just go into some specifics.
I think Mr. Boldt mentioned earlier that the government's policy to address affordability—changing the 25-year mortgage period to a 30-year period—was to assist in affordability. Would you not say that this policy actually allows people to buy a more expensive house, which means they're going to have a higher spending ability, when increased rates often mean they might then be overextended because they were able to buy it before at a different rate? Does that not put them in a more precarious position than if they had stayed at the 25-year amortization period?