Yes, I have just two points.
One is that I think clarity, consistency and avoiding confusion in the Criminal Code are important objectives. This is something that I think is a non-partisan issue. It's something that all governments strive for.
As an example of that, there are zombie provisions in the Criminal Code that we've sought to remove and that members of Mr. Genuis's party have sought actively to remove, just for that very reason. Having provisions in the Criminal Code that are no longer operative or are inconsistent can lead to misinterpretation of law.
The second point is just to respond to what Mr. Aboultaif raised, Ms. Levman, if you can let us know. He referenced the fact that informed consent is used in the prior clause, in paragraphs 240.1(1)(a), (b) and (c). Is it your testimony before this committee that notwithstanding if the definition were removed, the ability to enforce these new provisions, were they to become law, would not be jeopardized? Phrased in another way, does the lack of a definition compromise the ability to enforce this were it to become law?