I might be comparing apples and oranges here, but with regard to the Iranian nuclear sanctions, it has been suggested fairly widely that they were relaxed because European countries had greater interest in commercial ventures and connections with Iran, and that, ultimately, the United States had to follow along and relent in that area.
In the case of these three—and I know you're not perhaps familiar with the specifics—can Canadian commercial considerations take priority over the intent of the sanctions being applied?