The argument I guess essentially is.... Well, if you start with the financial statements of a government, the financial statements of a government that represent “here's what happened during the year”—so they're backward-looking documents—have to be prepared on an accrual basis. Accounting standards dictate that they have to be prepared on an accrual basis. As auditor, we have to make sure they were prepared on that basis.
So when you start with this—that the final report the government issues has to be on an accrual basis—then you start to look at the budget documents, which are forward-looking documents. In order to be able to tie the budget documents to the financial statement documents, there are a couple of things: number one, you would need to have the same basis of accounting; and number two, you would need to have the same definition of the entity, of what's in the budget. The organizations that are in the budget should be the same ones as those in the financial statements.
But then you get down to where there are some items that are expensed on an accrual basis. For example, I will use provision for losses on accounts receivable. You have accounts receivable and you expect that some of them you won't collect, so you have to expense the amount that you expect you're not going to collect. But it doesn't require you to pay out an amount of cash in that year. Okay?
I think that's what people struggle with in terms of accrual appropriations versus cash appropriations. It's that the accounting would require you to record one amount, but cash management may be very different from the year when you actually record the expense on an accrual basis.
As for what parliaments have done historically, parliaments have approved cash disbursement. So I think the thing that has to be sorted out is just exactly how you would represent the difference between the accrual estimates that tie into all of the other documents with the amount of cash that needs to come out of the bank account.