Let me be more specific when I say the published literature—and this is on the FDA website—gives a 40% to 275% increased risk, dose dependent, time dependent, dose response fashion, because the longer you're on the medication the higher the risk, and the higher the dose, the greater the risk of an infection that could extend your hospital stay by three weeks and result in expensive treatments with antibiotics, and perhaps bowel surgery, and perhaps death.
Would you consider 40% to 275% to be clinically significant?