I'd like to get back to this question. Mr. Kingsley, things have changed since 1992. First of all, Quebec is recognized as a nation by the Parliament of Canada. It is understandable to some degree that in 1992, Quebec wanted to hold its own referendum. When you survey Quebeckers, you see that 67% of them say they are Quebeckers first and Canadians second. So that was inevitable. Moreover, we're used to referenda in Quebec, as you know.
I want to understand this correctly. Your position is that the law should apply everywhere without Quebec having the right to hold its own referendum as it did in 1992 for example, or all provinces should have this right. It's one or the other: either it's applied across Canada or each of the provinces would have the right to hold one. Is that what you're proposing?