In other words, if I'm hearing you correctly, you are saying that if there's been a leak of a report from a committee, but the committee itself does not ask the House to deal with it, the probable ruling would be that there's been no breach of privilege.
What would happen if a member of the committee stood up, as Mr. Mulcair did—obviously quite within his rights—and called upon the chair to rule on privilege, but the committee itself had not written a report?