The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to get clarification.
Correct me if I'm wrong, but to my knowledge the only transgression that has been noted by the CRTC and fined accordingly was our colleague in Parliament, Mr. Valeriote, in Guelph. His campaign, during the last election, had made a number of calls in which the caller did not identify herself, and did not identify the fact that the call was coming from the Liberal campaign. He was found to be in violation and was fined $5,000. Who made the decision that it was only a violation and not an offence?
To me—and I'm sorry, and obviously I'll be accused of being a little partisan here—it's quite apparent that the call was made deliberately to mislead the recipients of the call in an attempt to influence voter outcome. That's pretty serious stuff, in my opinion, so I would just like to know exactly who made the decision that this should be a reduced monetary penalty as opposed to a more serious offence?