I'm sorry, but Craig makes a good point. We want to be really clear on this, because there is perhaps some confusion out there—or maybe purposeful confusion.
I mentioned one other scenario possibility, not just on the production costs but of someone's pre-paying television ads. Honestly, I don't know whether you can do this, and I used to be in the business. I'm not familiar with it, but I've been told that literally you can prepay a bunch of television ads a month or two months in advance and then not incur anything during the 37-day writ period.
So in your interpretation, would this capture that as well? Would it be considered an election expense?