You didn't imply this, but I'm going to now suggest an implication. If we can achieve a report on which there is unanimous consent, we are likely to be able to achieve that secondary objective of having unanimous consent in the House as opposed to disagreeing with each other. That would seem to make sense.
Actually, that wasn't a question to you; that was what strikes me as an observation. I was looking for comment only in the event I were to say something outrageously wrong, in which case you could correct me.