Can I ask for further clarification on that?
Obviously, in the last Parliament it was a fairly well-established precedent in this committee—and you would remember this, Madam Chair, having been on the committee through this as well—that we would change Standing Orders only by unanimous consent.
Is that the reason Mr. Gerretsen is putting this forward? Is it because of that established precedent that he is seeking unanimous consent to follow that? What is the purpose of the unanimous consent?