Merci, monsieur.
My proposal here was to recognize that, in the context of when a consumer affirmatively goes and purchases something from a seller, there be implied consent for that seller to continue to communicate with that consumer and offer that consumer new products—perhaps a sequel to the book they purchased—and that an 18-month implied consent simply is not sufficient and it does not match consumer expectations, especially given that books aren't written every 17 months, new cars don't go bad every 17 months, and so forth. There is a real consumer benefit for a much longer period. I would argue for an indefinite period, but perhaps five years would be sufficient.
I'm sorry, what was the second question?