I'd like to go back to Mr. Harroun's explanation.
For us to consider something to qualify as telemarketing, the call has to have a business purpose. Whether the company is legitimate or not, it must offer a product or service. If the call is criminal in nature, it amounts to saying that the person is using the telecommunications network to commit a crime, which is not a part of the CRTC's mandate.
By analogy, it would amount to saying that if a person was driving a Dodge van while committing an armed robbery, the automobile dealer would be asked to do something about it. Do you get what I'm saying? When a crime is committed, even if the medium used is the telecommunications network, our mandate does not go beyond the civil level.