I'm not aware that the Attorney General has ever consented to this kind of cause of action. There's already a provision in the FTA precluding one party giving cause of action to its nationals from bringing a claim against the other party for its failure to do something related to the agreement. I believe that's in article 2117 in this agreement. There are equivalent provisions in all our FTAs.
It would be a case of a Canadian suing in a Canadian court to enforce an alleged right or obligation arising under part 1. If you look at part 1, there's not a whole lot in it that would likely give rise to a cause of action. As far as I know, this hasn't arisen before, hence my hesitation in describing what it would do.