Yes. You ruled the Liberal amendment on clause 1 out of order. Why wouldn't the government amendment on clause 1 also be out of order?
The explanation being given is that we propose to stand down any discussion on clause 1 because the validity of our amendment on clause 1 will depend on whether or not subsequent government amendments are adopted. It's exactly the argument I gave for the Liberal amendment.
If my amendment was out of order, then the government's amendment to clause 1 should also be out of order, if you're going to issue rulings that are coherent.