I have one last question, further to the first point I raised with you, about reasonableness and the subjective-objective distinction. Would it not behoove us to specify that the perception of reasonableness is precisely on the part of the person who used the force? Would that give rise to a problem? Would it solve a problem? Would we be able to clearly define the message, which is something the courts already often do? The courts are always criticizing lawmakers, saying that the legislation is vague and that they have a burden. They are criticized for creating law, but for once, we would tell them how to interpret matters.
On March 6th, 2012. See this statement in context.