I just want to say that the courts have already used the existing legislation, including section 718.2 of the Criminal Code, to determine that the wearing of a mask can imply violence, intimidate victims, demonstrate planning, etc. In other words, the courts seem to have found in the existing legislation that which is necessary for the purposes of sanctioning the very conduct that we are all concerned about. That's why I go back to the question. Is it not more a question of the efficacy of law enforcement and the application of the law rather than the absence of an enabling authority to begin with?
On May 3rd, 2012. See this statement in context.