On that point, I guess we will have to agree to disagree, because I don't think the court needs to read in a specific intent to commit a criminal offence, any more than one would have to read in a heavier intent on the possession of stolen property charge.
I thought you had rather a good point when you compared this offence to the analogous situation of theft and possession, and you pointed out that indeed theft and possession both have some elements in common. One could not be convicted of both theft and possession of the same item. Yet you're not suggesting, because of that and because of the potential delay or double-charging or over-charging that would occur, that we should abolish the offence of possession of stolen property, are you?