I have two things. To pick up on Mr. Rathgeber's comment, and Ms. Glover's as well, I certainly do know that gender identity is being defined in this legislation. The definition is right here in the amendment. I've read it.
What I end up with is that we heard from the commission that gender identity and gender expression are already covered. They've already applied that both of those things are covered under the existing legislation. We're now modifying the legislation to explicitly include gender identity, with a definition of gender identity. Does that now mean that gender expression is not going to be covered? Or does that mean that gender expression is covered explicitly, despite gender identity being defined in the legislation? Or does it mean that gender expression is still going to be covered implicitly, despite the fact that gender identity has now been explicitly put into the legislation?
That's where I'm trying to understand to see if we are actually creating a worse patchwork. If somebody is saying that they've been discriminated against on the basis of gender identity, they're now not going to have to prove or take the time to prove that they've been discriminated against, because it's already there. They don't have to fit it in under “sex”. But for somebody who is saying that it's based on gender expression, that person is now going to have to go through that whole process and prove that somehow it fits under discrimination based on sex.
I need a flow chart to try to figure out where it's all going.